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If "top level logic" is supposed to mean "analytic statements" then you are right. The optimal price cannot be derived analytically.

As this is such a pointlessly contrived interpretation of the term "logic" in this context, I chose to use a different one: Is there a set of empirical circumstances under which an optimisation algorithm could conclude that the optimal price is zero? The answer to that is clearly yes.




Top level logic is supposed to mean the logic the comment I'm responding to uses to justify free. You know, "in this context". And I'm not talking about "optimal", just a single price of 0

Now, what exactly is the point of you insisting on your wrong interpretation?




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